primary you said :
"it works for the bass part because there is no zero pitch-bend event after the upward pitch-bend--only on the guitar part you have one before and after the top pitching."
that's false!
on the guitar as well as on the bass, i've put zero pitch bend events before and after the key note.
secondary :
"you must realize that a zero pitch-bend right after any other just makes the former (almost) to a nil effect."
this is the aim of putting the zero pitch bend after. do you realize this ???
i would like to speak to someone who know his subject.
primary you said :
"it works for the bass part because there is no zero pitch-bend event after the upward pitch-bend--only on the guitar part you have one before and after the top pitching."
that's false!
on the guitar as well as on the bass, i've put zero pitch bend events before and after the key note.
secondary :
"you must realize that a zero pitch-bend right after any other just makes the former (almost) to a nil effect."
this is the aim of putting the zero pitch bend after. do you realize this ???
i would like to speak to someone who know his subject.